They've gone/moved to Spain for two weeks.

0Not really, Teo.02br
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00People move somewhere with the intention of living there for a significant period of time, perhaps forever. 02br
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00You don't "move" for two weeks.02br
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00I wouldn't use "live in" for less than several months either.0-

03. They've moved to Spain for three years. Is #3 acceptable?0-

0 01blockquote

01cite10Teo12cite103. They've moved to Spain for three years. Is #3 acceptable?12br
12blockquote

10In keeping with GG's explanation, I would say this is correct.02br
00I might also that a business might 'move' for a month or two while their store or office is being remodeled. Here, however, it wou

03. They have moved to Spain for three years.02br
02br
00A Chinese professor of English says that #3 is incorrect. He thinks it should be written as "It has been three years since they moved to Spain." or "They have lived in Spain for three years." Is the professor wrong? Can any native speaker make more comment about this issue?0-

1blockquote

01cite10Teo12cite12br
103. They have moved to Spain for three years.12br
12br
10A Chinese professor of English says that #3 is incorrect. He thinks it should be written as "It has been three years since they moved to Spain." or "They have lived in Spain for three years." Is the professor wrong? Can any native speaker

1b00Each sentence is gramatically correct. But they do say different things. 02b02br
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01b00Ask your teacher to diagram each sentence to show the subject/verb construction. You will see the difference in the sentences. 02b0-

0Hi,02br
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01font003. They have moved to Spain for three years.02font02br
02br
01font00A Chinese professor of English says that #3 is incorrect. He thinks it should be written as "It has been three years since they moved to Spain." or "They have lived in Spain for three years." Is the profes

01. He has died for three years.02br
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002. He has been dead for three years,02br
02br
003. He has moved to New York for three years.02br
02br
004. He has lived in New York for three years.02br
02br
00The Chinese professor of English says only #2 and #4 are correct.0-

01. They've moved to Spain for three years.02br
02br
002. They've lived in Spain for three years. 02br
02br
003. They've gone to Spain for two weeks. 02br
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00#1 means "They have moved to Spain and they intend to live there for three years."02br
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00#2 means "It is three years since they have lived in Spain."0

01 is absolutely incorrect.02br
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002 is correct02br
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004 is correct.02br
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003 - ok in some contexts but not in others. It seems that the meaning your professor wants relates to someone who has already lived in NY for three years. In this context, the sentence is incorrect.02br
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00The contexts you are