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Hans51 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
They were separated since the World War 2.
Thank you and I got a good answer about usage of since on anther thread, but I still think that a meeting for those separated since the Korean War is wrong and it should be for those who have been separated since the Korean War because present perfect tense + since past tense or past events is logically correct or could you tell me if 'for those (who were) separated since the war' is okay to use?
For example,
They have been separated since the World War 2.
They were separated since the World War 2.
What do you native English speakers think? Thank you so much as usual in advance.
For example,
They have been separated since the World War 2.
They were separated since the World War 2.
What do you native English speakers think? Thank you so much as usual in advance.
Top answer
a meeting for those separated since the Korean War This is a fine noun phrase. The word "separated" is not a finite verb. It does not have "tense" as in an inflected verb.
- a meeting for those separated since the Korean War This is a fine noun phrase.
- The word "separated" is not a finite verb.
- It does not have "tense" as in an inflected verb.
- The clause " separated since the Korean War" modifies "those".
- They have been separated since the World War 2.
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1 Answers
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a meeting for those separated since the Korean War
This is a fine noun phrase. The word "separated" is not a finite verb. It does not have "tense" as in an inflected verb.
The clause "separated since the Korean War" modifies "those".
They have been separated sincethe World War 2. Fine.
This is a fine noun phrase. The word "separated" is not a finite verb. It does not have "tense" as in an inflected verb.
The clause "separated since the Korean War" modifies "those".
They have been separated since
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