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Hans51 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

"They are going to implement some sanctions to punish the country."

"They are going to implement some sanctions to punish the country."

I made the sentence to ask about some question about modification.

I think that "to punish the country" modifies "some sanctions" but I think that "to punish the country" also can modify "implement" without any difference in meaning.

Is this right?

And I was wondering how native English speakers figure out which modifies which in sentences like this?

So what do you native English speakers think? Is there a meaning difference between each modification? Or only one way is fine and correct?

Thank you so much as usual in advance.
  

Top answer

Hans51 I think that "to punish the country" modifies "some sanctions" but I think that "to punish the country" also can modify "implement" without any difference in meaning. Both are possible, but I first think of the latter. As far as I can tell, this is just because "to" meaning "in order to" is more common than adjectival to-infinitive.

  • Hans51 I think that "to punish the country" modifies "some sanctions" but I think that "to punish the country" also can modify "implement" without any difference in meaning.
  • Both are possible, but I first think of the latter.
  • As far as I can tell, this is just because "to" meaning "in order to" is more common than adjectival to-infinitive.
  • The difference in meaning is not great, so it is not a huge issue.
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1 Answers
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Hans51I think that "to punish the country" modifies "some sanctions" but I think that "to punish the country" also can modify "implement" without any difference in meaning.
Both are possible, but I first think of the latter. As far as I can tell, this is just because "to" meaning "in order to" is more common than adjectival to-infinitive. The difference in mea

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