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Park sang joon Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

These itinerants traveled under a freedom [accorded them] by the imperial court

Moving through these and other towns were blacksmiths, pot makers, sellers of oil, mats, rice wine and other goods. These itinerants traveled under a freedom accorded them by the imperial court in exchange for their having supplied the court with goods.
[Source: Rule of Law and Class Privileges in Kamakura Japan in http://www.fsmitha.com/h3/japan06.htm]

I'd like to know if the writer mistakenly omitted "to" before "them."
Thank you in advance for your help.
  

Top answer

No, it's not a mistake. "accord" can work as a transitive verb taking two objects. com/definition/english/accord Note that "accord" is being used in the passive voice in the text you quoted.

  • No, it's not a mistake.
  • "accord" can work as a transitive verb taking two objects.
  • com/definition/english/accord Note that "accord" is being used in the passive voice in the text you quoted.
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1 Answers
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No, it's not a mistake.
"accord" can work as a transitive verb taking two objects. Have a look here:
http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/accord

Note that "accord" is being used in the passive voice in the text you quoted.

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