There's no one without a fault

Question

Which of the following shares the same meaning as “There is no on without a fault?”

a. No one is without his faults.

b. There is no one who cannot be faulted.

c. There is no one but has fault.

d. No one is cannot without his faults.

The answer is C, but what’s wrong with answe A and B?

Mister Micawber · Accepted Answer

C is no good; its grammar is bad.  A is fine. B is no good because 'fault' (v) does not carry the same meaning as 'fault' (n).

Clive · Answer

Hi,
Which of the following shares the same meaning as “There is no one without a fault?”

a. No one is without his faults. I would choose this. It's the most natural of these choices.

The examiner may be thinking that A mentions faults, but that seems to me like splittinh g hairs. The intended meaning is the same as the original.

( The word 'his' is OK, because it is commonly intended to mean 'his or her' in such statements. )

b. There is no one who cannot be faulted. This introduces the new idea of other people assigning fault to a person.

c. There is no one but has fault. This is OK, but it is very stiff and formal. You won't often hear or read this.

d. No one is cannot without his faults. incorrect grammar

The answer is C, but what’s wrong with answe A and B?

Clive

There's no one without a fault

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