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Guyper Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

"There's no need for us to waste energy running up the hills"

"There's no need for us to waste energy running up the hills"

Regarding the verb running up, is it attached to the subject verb, there's no need or us?

Or was there supposed to include the preposition, by, but it got omitted?

"There's no need for us to waste energy by running up the hills"

How are the two clauses exactly combined to form into one sentence?

Thank you
  

Top answer

Guyper "There's no need for us to waste energy running up the hills" There are two clauses in the sentence: the first, a finite and main one, There's no need for us to waste energy and the second, a non-finite, running up the hills functioning as an adverbial (of manner).

— Anonymous

  • Guyper "There's no need for us to waste energy running up the hills" There are two clauses in the sentence: the first, a finite and main one, There's no need for us to waste energy and the second, a non-finite, running up the hills functioning as an adverbial (of manner).
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2 Answers
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Guyper"There's no need for us to waste energy running up the hills"
There are two clauses in the sentence: the first, a finite and main one, There's no need for us to waste energy and the second, a non-finite, running up the hills functioning as an adverbial (of manner).
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Guyperthe verb running up
Running up is not a verb; it’s a verb and a preposition. The complement of the preposition is the hills.

The subject of running is understood as “us”.
GuyperOr was there supposed to include the preposition, by, but it got omitted?
No, but it has the same meaning as a
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