0 do the two mean the same? 02br 02br 00i know thereafter can be interpreted as after that. i have no doubt about that. but what about since then? 02br 02br 00tks 0-
Top answer
0Yes, but I think that 'since then' clamors more for the present perfect. 0-
— Mister Micawber
0Yes, but I think that 'since then' clamors more for the present perfect.
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0 "thereafter" is rather legalistic in nature, to my mind. It belongs in a legal document. It's an older form very rarely used in everyday conversation. But it does mean "after that", as you say. 0-