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Cho7712 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
there be
I found rather puzzling explanation about the agreement in there expletive form. This is quoted from Advanced Grammar in Use.
If the noun-phrase consists of two or more nouns in a list,
we use a singular verb if the first noun is singular or uncountable, and a plural verb if the first noun is plural
a. When I opened the fridge, there was only a bottle of milk,
some eggs, and butter.
b. When I opened the fridge, there were only some eggs,
a bottle of milk, and butter.
I am very much doubtful whether this rule really does exist.
Recalling my memory about the grammar point which deals with this matter, I know differently as you see below.
If the nouns in the list is viewed as one entity newly
introduced to the hearer, then the verb is singular.
ex. There is Tom and Jane.
What do you think about it?
If the noun-phrase consists of two or more nouns in a list,
we use a singular verb if the first noun is singular or uncountable, and a plural verb if the first noun is plural
a. When I opened the fridge, there was only a bottle of milk,
some eggs, and butter.
b. When I opened the fridge, there were only some eggs,
a bottle of milk, and butter.
I am very much doubtful whether this rule really does exist.
Recalling my memory about the grammar point which deals with this matter, I know differently as you see below.
If the nouns in the list is viewed as one entity newly
introduced to the hearer, then the verb is singular.
ex. There is Tom and Jane.
What do you think about it?
Top answer
I think the rule is usually sensible and the example sentences are correct. When "there + be-verb" is used with people, the nuance seems slightly different. However, I am unclear why "There is Tom and Jane" is an exception to the rule.
- I think the rule is usually sensible and the example sentences are correct.
- When "there + be-verb" is used with people, the nuance seems slightly different.
- However, I am unclear why "There is Tom and Jane" is an exception to the rule.
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7 Answers
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I think the rule is usually sensible and the example sentences are correct.
When "there + be-verb" is used with people, the nuance seems slightly different. However, I am unclear why "There is Tom and Jane" is an exception to the rule.
When "there + be-verb" is used with people, the nuance seems slightly different. However, I am unclear why "There is Tom and Jane" is an exception to the rule.
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There is Tom and Jane. Tom and Jane are a couple or very close friends. They are frequently seen together.
There are Tom and Jane. Tom and Jane are individuals. It is only accidental that we see them together at the same time.
There are Tom and Jane. Tom and Jane are individuals. It is only accidental that we see them together at the same time.
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AlpheccaStarsThere is Tom and Jane. Tom and Jane are a couple or very close friends. They are frequently seen together. There are Tom and Jane. Tom and Jane are individuals. It is only accidental that we see them together at the same time.How can one explain it grammatically? Is Tom and Jane a complement in There is Tom and Jane? Are Jane
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Thank you all for the answers.
My intention is just exactly picked up by AS. That is what I wanted to say.
If going on further, it can be possible to think of the following case.
ex. There is two apples, a bottle of milk.
And this is right counter to the rule described in the grammar book.
In what way can I reconcile two different ideas?
My intention is just exactly picked up by AS. That is what I wanted to say.
If going on further, it can be possible to think of the following case.
ex. There is two apples, a bottle of milk.
And this is right counter to the rule described in the grammar book.
In what way can I reconcile two different ideas?
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cho7712ex. There is Tom and Jane.No, for names we don't say "there is Tom...and ". However, people do commonly say: Here is Tom and Jane.
It depends on the person who sees what is inside the fridge. If I asked Tom to get me a beer from the fridge and when he opens the door, he only sees a can of Coke in front of
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Thank you for the answer.
So the given rule in the grammar book is the one that only should be concerned when I use there-expletive form.
So the given rule in the grammar book is the one that only should be concerned when I use there-expletive form.
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I
But "there is Tom and Jane " is not.
cho7712Thank you for the answer.So the given rule in the grammar book is the one that only should be concerned when I use there-expletive form.Rules sometimes can be bent. There is ONLY one Tom and one Jane, and that's you and me. -Correct
But "there is Tom and Jane " is not.
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