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Navitasan Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

The wealth of all of them

1) The wealth of all of them is greater than mine.
2) The wealth of each of them is greater than mine.
3) The wealth of every one of them is greater than mine.

I think in '2' and '3' the wealth of each individual belonging to 'them' is compared to mine.
But isn't '1' ambiguous. Couldn't it also mean:
a) The wealth of all of them combined is greater than mine.

Gratefully,
Navi.
  

Top answer

Yes, I think it could be interpreted that way.

  • Yes, I think it could be interpreted that way.
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1 Answers
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Yes, I think it could be interpreted that way.

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