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JungKim Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
the visit is to pay respects...
The following two paragraphs are taken from a Guardian article titled "Obama brings large delegation to cement ties with Saudi Arabia's new king":
Obama broke short his trip to India, skipping a promised visit with Michelle Obama to the Taj Mahal, in order to make the visit - something officials say was a logistical necessity to get security assets in place in time that would have been used on the trip to Agra.
Officially, the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah, but officials concede that its wider purpose is to ensure that the handover of power to successor King Salman does not affect US interests at a time of great uncertainty.
In the second paragraph, there's this clause:
the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah
It seems that this clause means "the purpose of the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah".
Question 1) Is the original clause is grammatically correct as is?
Question 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text? Is its role any different than that in the clause including "the purpose of"?
Obama broke short his trip to India, skipping a promised visit with Michelle Obama to the Taj Mahal, in order to make the visit - something officials say was a logistical necessity to get security assets in place in time that would have been used on the trip to Agra.
Officially, the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah, but officials concede that its wider purpose is to ensure that the handover of power to successor King Salman does not affect US interests at a time of great uncertainty.
In the second paragraph, there's this clause:
the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah
It seems that this clause means "the purpose of the visit is to pay respects following the death of King Abdullah".
Question 1) Is the original clause is grammatically correct as is?
Question 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text? Is its role any different than that in the clause including "the purpose of"?
Top answer
JungKim Question 1) Is the original clause is grammatically correct as is? Yes, it is fine and natural. JungKim Question 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text?
- JungKim Question 1) Is the original clause is grammatically correct as is?
- Yes, it is fine and natural.
- JungKim Question 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text?
- I don't know what you mean by 'role'.
- The clause modifies 'visit', stating its purpose.
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4 Answers
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JungKimQuestion 1) Is the original clause is grammatically correct as is?Yes, it is fine and natural.
JungKimQuestion 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text?I don't know what you mean by 'role'. The clause modifies 'visit', stating its purpose.
JungKim Is its ro
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Mister MicawberJungKimQuestion 2) If so, what's the role of the to-infinitive clause in the original text? I don't know what you mean by 'role'. The clause modifies 'visit', stating its purpose.JungKim Is its role any different than that in the clause including "the purpose of"?I don't know what you mean by role; the purpose is the same.Thanks. Regarding the
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JungKim So I was asking how to articulate the difference.They are different structures expressing the same information, that is all.
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Mister MicawberThey are different structures expressing the same information, that is all.Well put. I get it and totally agree.
It seems to me that the to-infinitival in (1), the original text, plays a role of adverbial because the to-infinitival indicates the purpose of the visit. Is that right?
If so, the adverbial functions as a pr
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