The ship has been laid on the seabed for more than 50 years
On Cambridge Dictionaries Online, it says:
lie verb
The ship has been lying on the seabed for more than 50 years.
If I rewrite it to 'The ship has been laid on the seabed for more than 50 years.', is this sentence grammatically correct and does it sound natural?
If not, could you please tell me why?
Thanks!
PS I also posted the same question in https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/251665-The-ship-has-been-laid-on-the-seabed-for-more-than-50-years?p=1331434#post1331434, but all of your answers are unique to me. Thank you.
Top answer
kadioguy is this sentence grammatically correct Yes. But it is rather implausible. It means that some force or supernatural being put the ship there fifty years ago in a state of repose.
- kadioguy is this sentence grammatically correct Yes.
- But it is rather implausible.
- It means that some force or supernatural being put the ship there fifty years ago in a state of repose.
- Compare with this: Flowers have been laid on her grave.
- )
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kadioguy is this sentence grammatically correct
Yes.
But it is rather implausible. It means that some force or supernatural being put the ship there fifty years ago in a state of repose.
Compare with this:
Flowers have been laid on her grave. (People put the flowers there.)
0
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