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Lupa.pinheiro Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

The reason for the word "perfect" describing the perfect tenses

Hi, can someone give me a hint on this.
What is the reason for the word "perfect" describing the perfect tenses. The only explanation I found so far is that they mean the completion of something, which is exactly what I was told tha it wasn't.
Help Please.
[:^)]
  

Top answer

I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection. Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not. I have eaten.

  • I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection.
  • Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not.
  • I have eaten.
  • A.
  • for 10 years.
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2 Answers
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I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection. Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not.
I have eaten. (dynamic verb and implies that you're finished eating)
I have lived in L.A. for 10 years. (stative verb and implies that I am still living here).
Whether it implicates a meaning of completion or not depends on the nature of the verb.
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Check too, Jack-in-the-box answers the same question:

Jack-in-the-box
Re: Perfect tenses
Posted: 07-23-2004 05:38 PM
"Perfect" derives from Latin "perfectus", meaning "accomplished".
Latin had a past tense called "tempus perfectum": properly, the tense that means that an action (or state) has been accomplished, or, in other words, that it has come to an end: for

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