The reason for the word "perfect" describing the perfect tenses
Hi, can someone give me a hint on this. What is the reason for the word "perfect" describing the perfect tenses. The only explanation I found so far is that they mean the completion of something, which is exactly what I was told tha it wasn't. Help Please. [:^)]
Top answer
I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection. Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not. I have eaten.
— Guest
I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection.
Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not.
I have eaten.
A.
for 10 years.
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I think the reason is the perfect=complete connection. Sometimes the perfect does imply completion and sometimes it does not. I have eaten. (dynamic verb and implies that you're finished eating) I have lived in L.A. for 10 years. (stative verb and implies that I am still living here). Whether it implicates a meaning of completion or not depends on the nature of the verb.
Check too, Jack-in-the-box answers the same question:
Jack-in-the-box Re: Perfect tenses Posted: 07-23-2004 05:38 PM "Perfect" derives from Latin "perfectus", meaning "accomplished". Latin had a past tense called "tempus perfectum": properly, the tense that means that an action (or state) has been accomplished, or, in other words, that it has come to an end: for