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Healer Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

The possessive case apostrophe 's'

When I was a primary school pupil years ago I was taught adding only an apostrophe to a noun that is plural and ends with a letter 's' or a sound of 's'. I have come across so many now even a noun in singular that ends with an s takes only an apostrophe. Conflicting ideas pops up everywhere. It seems to me the latter is the latest trend. I would like to hear some educated and professional opinions on various usages.

Examples:
Jesus's disciples or Jesus' disciples
Jones's house or Jones' house.
for justice' sake or for justice's sake
Candice' dress or Candice's dress
  

Top answer

Hello, healer—and welcome to English Forums. The practice of using only the apostrophe (no additional 's') after singular nouns ending in 's' is still acceptable, but style guides are now tending to restrict that to 'classical' names like Jesus', Socrates' and Moses' and some set phrases like 'for goodness's sake'. Jesus's disciples or Jesus' disciples- - Both OK.

  • Hello, healer—and welcome to English Forums.
  • The practice of using only the apostrophe (no additional 's') after singular nouns ending in 's' is still acceptable, but style guides are now tending to restrict that to 'classical' names like Jesus', Socrates' and Moses' and some set phrases like 'for goodness's sake'.
  • Jesus's disciples or Jesus' disciples- - Both OK.
  • Jones's house or Jones' house.
  • -- Are you intending a family's house, and their name is Jones?
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11 Answers
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Hello, healer—and welcome to English Forums.

The practice of using only the apostrophe (no additional 's') after singular nouns ending in 's' is still acceptable, but style guides are now tending to restrict that to 'classical' names like Jesus', Socrates' and Moses' and some set phrases like 'for goodness's sake'.

Jesus's disciples or Jesus' disciples-- Both OK.
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Thanks for your advice.

The word "Jesus'" is all I come across in the bible. To what I can remember I haven't seen "Jesus's" has been used. Do we say "Jesuses" if we do use it?

As to the example of Jones I intended it to be simply someone's name and someone's thing, for example, Douglas' book or Douglas's book. I suppose we would say "douglases" when we use the latter. Am I r
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"Jesuses"-- This means 2 guys named Jesus. It is not possessive.

As to the example of Jones I intended it to be simply someone's name and someone's thing, for example, Douglas' book or Douglas's book. I suppose we would say "douglases" when we use the latter.-- You seem very lost. Jones is normally a family name and Douglas is normally a first name. Which do you wish to exam
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There was some misunderstanding. I apologized for not making myself clear. The following were meant to be phonetic symbols, not words.

Jesuses - > ['d?i:z?s?s]
goodnesses - > ['gudnis?s]

Since you said we could or we should actually have said "Jesus's" and "goodnesses" in spite of the recent trend, I had the other questions.

I had supposed when we say "for go
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There was some misunderstanding. I apologized for not making myself clear. The following were meant to be phonetic symbols, not words.Jesuses - > ['d?i:z?s?s] goodnesses - > ['gudnis?s]-- But they are words, so please don't do that again.

you said we could or we should actually have said "Jesus's"- Yes. and "goodnesses"-- No

I had supposed when we say
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To verify my understanding, can I say in case of "goodnesses" regardless of how we write it we simply pronounce it as ['gudnis] ?

After all it seems there is no hard and fast rules but we should just follow the local customs. To me, as long as they are considered the educated or the best decisions they are fine. I have found that when a lot of people make the same “mistakes” the mistake
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To verify my understanding, can I say in case of "goodnesses" regardless of how we write it we simply pronounce it as ['gudnis] ?-- No, not at all! 'Goodnesses' is a plural, not a possessive, and it is not used in that idiomatic phrase.

After all it seems there is no hard and fast rules but we should just follow the local customs. To me, as long as they are considered the educated
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Oh! Sorry my mistake again. I meant to say to verify my understanding, can I say in case of "goodness's" regardless of how we write it we simply pronounce it as ['gudnis] ?--
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I'll wager that folks pronounce it both ways.
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I thank you for your having putting up with me. I am just a pain in the **** sometimes.

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