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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

The past subjunctive and the past simple tense

I did walk home.

I didn't walk home.

These are past simple tense. Since the past subjunctive is identicle to the past simple (except for to be), does this mean the above are also past subjunctive?

Thanks
  

Top answer

Huh? No hypothesis, so no subjunctive. )

— Mister Micawber

  • Huh?
  • No hypothesis, so no subjunctive.
  • )
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5 Answers
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Huh? No hypothesis, so no subjunctive. (The first is emphatic, as I suppose you know.)
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Mister MicawberHuh? No hypothesis, so no subjunctive. (The first is emphatic, as I suppose you know.)

I mean that they could be used as past subjunctive verbs in the right circumstances, i.e. conditions that call upon the subjunctive, such as a hypothesis.

damaged=past subjunctive

If I damaged your car, I would be in trouble.
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English 1b3These are past simple tense. Since the past subjunctive is identicle identical to the past simple (except for to be), does this mean the above are also past subjunctive?
No. The inflectional forms are the same because of a syncretism between the simple past
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CalifJim Therefore, the distinction between the two forms must be determined according to their usage in sentences, not merely by the spelling.

I think you need to read my second post, as I cleared up what I meant. Please tell me if your answer then changes.
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English 1b3I think you need to read my second post, as I cleared up what I meant. Please tell me if your answer then changes.
Same answer. The determination between past indicative and past subjunctive depends on usage.

Yes, yes, yes. When you put it in an if-clause and the accompanying main clause has would, then of course it's subjunctive.
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