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Justafreak Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

The passive voice

Hello!

I have come to understand that the passive voice always contains be+ ed.. But my grammar book tells me that the sentence "He could have been hurt in an accident" is in the passie voice. Why is that?

THanx!
  

Top answer

Hi, I have come to understand that the passive voice always contains be+ ed.. But my grammar book tells me that the sentence "He could have been hurt in an accident" is in the passive voice. Why is that?

— Clive

  • Hi, I have come to understand that the passive voice always contains be+ ed..
  • But my grammar book tells me that the sentence "He could have been hurt in an accident" is in the passive voice.
  • Why is that?
  • .
  • have been .
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3 Answers
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Hi,

I have come to understand that the passive voice always contains be+ ed.. But my grammar book tells me that the sentence "He could have been hurt in an accident" is in the passive voice. Why is that?

. . . have been . . . is a form of the verb 'be'.



Perhaps you can see more easily that the sentence is passive if you think of it as

eg "He co
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Thank you for your answer... But I don`see the .... That`S what I don`t understand. Is the rule that if a sentence cotain a form of "to be" it`s in the passive? What about the ?
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Hi,

It's' be + past participle'.

'Hurt' is an irregular verb, The past participle is 'hurt', not 'hurted'.

Clive
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