The following passage is from the website as follows:
http://www.epubbud.com/read.php?g=H8AVF5J5&tocp=8 ‘My aim,’ he wrote in 1842 (anticipating John Stuart Mill by nine years), ‘is the liberty of each limited alone by the like liberty of all.’ Yet he foresaw that the battle to persuade leaders not to believe in coercion was far from over: ‘Though we no longer coerce men for their spiritual good, we still think ourselves called upon to coerce them for their material good: not seeing that the one is as unwarrantable as the other.’ The inherent illiberalism of the bureaucracy, not to mention its tendency to corruption and extravagance, was a threat Spencer warned against in vain.In the sentence with underlined parts, ‘the one’ seems to stand for ‘coerce them for their material good’ and ‘the other,’ ‘coerce men for their spiritual good’ in the sense of context.
Do you think my thought is right?
Isn’t there any chance of vice versa? (I thought over the chance of this case but that doesn’t seem to fit in the context.)
Wish for your response.
Thanks in advance.