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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

The omission of 'of whom'

I have two brothers, one is stupid, the other is very intelligent.

This sentence appears to have three main clauses, which would undoubtedly render comma splices.

But could you say there is just one main clause, with two dependent clauses that have been reduced?

I have two brothers, one of whom is stupid, the other of whom is very intelligent.

Or is eliding 'of whom' in this case improper/uncommon?

Thank you
  

Top answer

To me, the second is just a formal way to say the first. The second sounds a bit awkward because of the double 'whom'. Surely it's not the best style.

— Ivanhr

  • To me, the second is just a formal way to say the first.
  • The second sounds a bit awkward because of the double 'whom'.
  • Surely it's not the best style.
  • I'm not sure about the main/dependent clauses distinction.
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3 Answers
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To me, the second is just a formal way to say the first. The second sounds a bit awkward because of the double 'whom'. Surely it's not the best style.

I'm not sure about the main/dependent clauses distinction.
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Well you could say this if the second version above sounds too stlited:

I have two brothers, one of whom is stupid, the other, very intelligent.

Or

I have two brothers, one of whom is stupid; the other, very inteliigent.
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I think they're ok in a literary style. If I were to use one of those I'd probably insert 'is' after the other.

I'm not sure about the punctuation either. But I'm not good with commas, semi-colons etc.
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