0
SweetFreedom Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
The natural law is bound immediately to become the complete opposite of the religion-based law that preceded it?
Does "the natural law is bound immediately to become the complete opposite of the religion-based law that preceded it"mean "the natural law is bound immediately to become a bad law that is the opposite of the good law (the religion-based law/God's Word)"? So that "that egoism, even extending to the perpetration of crime, would not only be permissible but would be recognized as the essential, the
most rational"?
Context:
And finally, as though all this were
not enough, he declared that for every individual, such as
you and me, for example, who does not believe either in
God or in his own immortality, the natural law is bound
immediately to become the complete opposite of the
religion-based law that preceded it, and that egoism, even
extending to the perpetration of crime, would not only be
permissible but would be recognized as the essential, the
most rational, and even the noblest raison d'etre of
the human condition.
most rational"?
Context:
And finally, as though all this were
not enough, he declared that for every individual, such as
you and me, for example, who does not believe either in
God or in his own immortality, the natural law is bound
immediately to become the complete opposite of the
religion-based law that preceded it, and that egoism, even
extending to the perpetration of crime, would not only be
permissible but would be recognized as the essential, the
most rational, and even the noblest raison d'etre of
the human condition.
Top answer
SweetFreedom "the natural law is bound immediately to become a bad law that is the opposite of the good law (the religion-based law/***'s Word)"? In the opinion of the person referenced in "he declared", apparently yes. Other people might consider religion-based laws to be bad, or "his" argument to be bogus.
- SweetFreedom "the natural law is bound immediately to become a bad law that is the opposite of the good law (the religion-based law/***'s Word)"?
- In the opinion of the person referenced in "he declared", apparently yes.
- Other people might consider religion-based laws to be bad, or "his" argument to be bogus.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
2 Answers
0
SweetFreedom"the natural law is bound immediately to become a bad law that is the opposite of the good law (the religion-based law/***'s Word)"?In the opinion of the person referenced in "he declared", apparently yes. Other people might consider religion-based laws to be bad, or "his" argument to be bogus.
00
SweetFreedomDoes "the natural law ..." mean "the natural law is bound immediately to become a bad law that is the opposite of the good law (the religion-based law/***'s Word)"?While 'good' and 'bad' are not explicitly mentioned, it does appear that the person ("he") who declared this, however far-fetched his logic might be, did in fact intend this sort of int
0
Related Questions