Hey there,
I'm a student majoring in international law. There is a sentence in a court ruling that confuses me a lot. It goes "it was established in international law that no government was responsible for the acts of rebels where it itself was guilty of no breach of good faith or negligence in suppressing the revolt." Does the sentence "it is guilty of no breach good faith ..." mean that it is not guilty if it doesn't breach good faith?
Thank you so much!
Here's the idea. Consider a government that is not guilty of a breach of good faith or of negligence in suppressing a revolt. Such a government is not responsible for the acts of rebels.
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Here's the idea.
Consider a government that is not guilty of a breach of good faith or of negligence in suppressing a revolt.
Such a government is not responsible for the acts of rebels. This principle is established in international law.
Clive
I have given you no answer to your question.
I have not given you an answer to your question.
(Both have the same effect.)
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