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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

The meaning of had p.p

Hello, teachers. All of a sudden, I was wondering if the past form of present perfect tense form, "has/have p.p" is "had p.p"?, but I have learned that the past form of "was and were" are also "had p.p". So do you think the form of "had p.p" implies both meanings and we should distinguish by context?

Thank you so much as usual and I hope to hear from you again, if you are okay.
  

Top answer

p" implies both meanings and we should distinguish by context? Yes, but there is no purpose in distinguishing, since it means neither of them as far as I can see.

— Mister Micawber

  • p" implies both meanings and we should distinguish by context?
  • Yes, but there is no purpose in distinguishing, since it means neither of them as far as I can see.
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3 Answers
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AnonymousSo do you think the form of "had p.p" implies both meanings and we should distinguish by context?
Yes, but there is no purpose in distinguishing, since it means neither of them as far as I can see.
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Thank you so much and what do you mean "it means neither of them"? So you agree that the form of "had p.p" comes from a past tense of "have p.p" and more past tense of past tense?
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They do not 'come from each other'. The various English verb forms have different uses and refer to different times and aspects of time.
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