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Ivanhr Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

The logic of tenses

Hi,

Yesterday John had eaten the cake.

I don't understand why the event took place before yesterday? Is it that the use of "had eaten" suggests a time earlier than yesterday.

best regards Ivan
  

Top answer

(1) Yesterday John ate the cake. ) before we ARRIVED at his home (at 4:30). So there was no cake for us.

  • (1) Yesterday John ate the cake.
  • ) before we ARRIVED at his home (at 4:30).
  • So there was no cake for us.
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6 Answers
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(1) Yesterday John ate the cake. (2) Yesterday John HAD EATEN the cake (at 3 p.m.) before we ARRIVED at his home (at 4:30). So there was no cake for us.
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I would use it the way you did. But this text suggest that this sentence is possible
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I went to that website but couldn't find that sentence. (I'm basically computer illiterate.!) Could you explain the context in which "Yesterday John had eaten the cake" was used?
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For some reason, "cake" is a sweet obsession in everyone's mind!

It would seem to me that past perfect is an overkill. John ate the whole cake yesterday. One single past event, completed!

Past perfect always includes 2 past events with one preceding the other.

Mary had baked a cake before John arrived yesterday. He ate the whole thing after eveyone went to bed!
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IvanhrYesterday John had eaten the cake.
Be careful about examples given in linguistics discussions. They sometimes cite examples out of context, and they sometimes use very unlikely combinations of words just to prove a point related to one of their theories. Even if a sentence might be used once in a century by an actual speaker, if it qualifies as grammat
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I agree with you CJ.

Anon, there is no context (but you can find that sentence if you go to that page and click the find on this page menu item found on the edit menu of the menu bar). But basically CJ explained it in his post above.

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