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Hans51 Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

The letter described it as being great.

The letter described it as being great.

VS.

I described it as being great (in the letter).

Which one is more natural to native English speakers? Or is there any difference in meaning between them? Thank you so much as usual and have a good day.
  

Top answer

Both sentences are fine. ". The second sentence tells the reader who wrote the letter.

  • Both sentences are fine.
  • ".
  • The second sentence tells the reader who wrote the letter.
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5 Answers
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Both sentences are fine.

In the first, some person wrote the letter with a description of "it.".
The second sentence tells the reader who wrote the letter.
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Thank you, so both can tell the same thing in the same situation?
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It's possible that the content of the letter is the same, but there is nothing that says this.

The first sentence only tells about a letter, and that it describes something great.
The second sentence tells us that the speaker wrote the letter.
There is more information about the situation in the second sentence..
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I wrote a letter, describing it as being great.

-> I wrote a letter, and the letter described it as being great.

-> I wrote a letter, and I described it as being great.

I think either way is possible and there is not much difference in meaning. What do you think?
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Neither sentence is good writing.

-> I wrote a letter, and the letter described it as being great. This is not a good writing style. After all, you wrote the letter.
If you say "The letter described it as being great." I would assume that you did not write the letter, someone else did. And maybe you don't even know

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