The house had been empty for ages

Question

The house had been empty for ages VS. The house was empty for ages.

I think both are saying the same meaning. What do you native English speakers think and feel about it?

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Anonymous · Accepted Answer

The difference is in time of action. The past perfect (first sentence) is used for completed action in the past. So, "The house had been empty for ages.", would be said in past time to indicate that the house has stood empty from some time before the speaker says this. This kind of sentence is typically seen in novels, where the action related is in the past - a novel, by definition, cannot express action in the present time. For example:

"That old house had (past tense) a reputation for being haunted. No one had lived (past perfect tense) there for years."

"The house was empty for ages." is past tense. Although the idea expressed seems the same as the past perfect example above, the usage is different:

"After my aunt died, the house was (past tense) empty for ages, since it took (past tense) a long to find her heirs and then none of them wanted (past tense) to live there." (Here the past tense, rather than past perfect tense, is used, as the speaker is simply relating a series of events in past time, rather than denoting a completed event in past time.)

The house had been empty for ages

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