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Rommel Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
"The first...to become..." or "the first...to have become..."?
Of the two given sentences, the first one is grammatically correct, isn't it?
a. That lady was the first businesswoman to have become our city mayor.
b. That lady was the first businesswoman to become our city mayor.
a. That lady was the first businesswoman to have become our city mayor.
b. That lady was the first businesswoman to become our city mayor.
Top answer
Both are fine and synonymous: two ways of saying the same thing.
- Both are fine and synonymous: two ways of saying the same thing.
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3 Answers
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Both are fine and synonymous: two ways of saying the same thing.
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But would it be okay if I write "That lady was the first businesswoman to have become our city mayor in 1983"? How about writing "That lady was the first businesswoman to become our city mayor in 1983"? Is the meaning still the same. I believe it is not.
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RommelIs the meaning still the same. I believe it is not.I believe it is.
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