The difference according to the existence of "to be".
1. The painting was declared to be a forgery.
(This sounds like a suspicious declaration or the process of declaration while investigating the painting)
2. The painting was declared a forgery.
(This just sounds like a decisive declaration)
What's the difference between them?
I think there's a little difference because of "to be", because to me the 1 seems to convey a suspicious declaration that the painting might be a forgery, but on the other hand, there doesn't seem to be such a suspicious feeling in the 2 sentence but a decisive declaration that the painting is certainly a forgery.
is my thinking correct ?
Top answer
I see no difference in meaning at all between the two. Neither, in itself, casts doubts on the validity of the declaration.
- I see no difference in meaning at all between the two.
- Neither, in itself, casts doubts on the validity of the declaration.
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I see no difference in meaning at all between the two. Neither, in itself, casts doubts on the validity of the declaration.
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