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Deepcosmos Posted 4 years ago
Grammar

The beneficiary of an action

Hello, everyone,

A. “It is interesting for me to read this book.” equals,
1) Reading this book is interesting for me.
2) For me to read this book is interesting.

B. “It's fun for me to play the piano.” equals,
3) Playing the piano is fun for me.
4) For me to play the piano is fun.

My question is;

1. if in case A 1), 2) the beneficiary of the action - ‘reading/to read this book’ is ‘me’ both?
2. if in case B 3), 4) the beneficiary of the action - ‘playing/to play the piano’ is ‘me’ and ‘they’(as an implied subject)?

While I think the sentence B above is not so idiomatic, I would hope to hear the reason why I feel the beneficiary is different in each case even under the same construction with ‘It's + (adj) + for me + (infinitive)’.

Would appreciate your valuable comments.

  

Top answer

As you see, there are two interpretations of the original sentence. The first in each case treats the for -phrase as separate from the infinitive that follows it in the original. This shows the beneficiary of the action.

  • As you see, there are two interpretations of the original sentence.
  • The first in each case treats the for -phrase as separate from the infinitive that follows it in the original.
  • This shows the beneficiary of the action.
  • The second interpretation in each case treats the complement of the for -phrase as the subject of an infinitive clause.
  • This makes the complement of for the agent of the action portrayed in the infinitive clause, not a beneficiary.
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1 Answers
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As you see, there are two interpretations of the original sentence.

The first in each case treats the for-phrase as separate from the infinitive that follows it in the original. This shows the beneficiary of the action.

The second interpretation in each case treats the complement of the for-phrase as the subject of an infinitive clause. This makes the complement of

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