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Park sang joon Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
The analyses of a text #2
The narrator recalls his childhood.
He lives with his mother, Peggotty the only maid of his house, and his stepfather Mr. Murdstone in his late father's house.
We dined alone, we three together. He seemed to be very fond of my mother?I am afraid I liked him none the better for that?and she was very fond of him. I gathered from what they said that an elder sister of his was coming to stay with them, and that she was expected that evening. I am not certain whether I found out then or afterwards that, without being actively concerned in any business, he had some share in, or some annual charge upon the profits of, a wine-merchant's house in London, with which his family had been connected from his great-grandfather's time, and in which his sister had a similar interest, but I may mention it in this place, whether or no.
[David Copperfield by Charles Dickens]
I thought "none the better for that" is an adjectival phrase.
So, I was wondering if "none the better for that" is used either an adjectival phrase or an adverbial phrase.
I think "a wine-merchant's house" is an object of "of."
So, I was wondering why there is the comma after "of."
Thank you in advance for your help.
He lives with his mother, Peggotty the only maid of his house, and his stepfather Mr. Murdstone in his late father's house.
We dined alone, we three together. He seemed to be very fond of my mother?I am afraid I liked him none the better for that?and she was very fond of him. I gathered from what they said that an elder sister of his was coming to stay with them, and that she was expected that evening. I am not certain whether I found out then or afterwards that, without being actively concerned in any business, he had some share in, or some annual charge upon the profits of, a wine-merchant's house in London, with which his family had been connected from his great-grandfather's time, and in which his sister had a similar interest, but I may mention it in this place, whether or no.
[David Copperfield by Charles Dickens]
I thought "none the better for that" is an adjectival phrase.
So, I was wondering if "none the better for that" is used either an adjectival phrase or an adverbial phrase.
I think "a wine-merchant's house" is an object of "of."
So, I was wondering why there is the comma after "of."
Thank you in advance for your help.
Top answer
So, I was wondering if "none the better for that" is used either an adjectival phrase or an adverbial phrase It is adverbial, modifying 'liked'. park sang joon I think "a wine-merchant's house" is an object of "of. Yes.
- So, I was wondering if "none the better for that" is used either an adjectival phrase or an adverbial phrase It is adverbial, modifying 'liked'.
- park sang joon I think "a wine-merchant's house" is an object of "of.
- Yes.
- he had some share in , or some annual charge upon the profits of , a wine-merchant's house in London .
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4 Answers
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park sang joonI thought "none the better for that" is an adjectival phrase.So, I was wondering if "none the better for that" is used either an adjectival phrase or an adverbial phraseIt is adverbial, modifying 'liked'.
park sang joonI think "a wine-merchant's house" is an object of "of.Yes.
park sang joon
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Thank you, Mr.Micawber, for your very helpful answer. 
Then I w
It is adverbial, modifying 'liked'.
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park sang joonThen I was wondering if "none the better for" is adverbial also in "He is none the better for his experience.With the copula, I think that most grammarians would call it a predicate adjective.
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