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Park sang joon Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

The analyses of a text #2

I was reminded of the story of a world-famous toxicologist who inadvertently ingested a poison for which there was no antidote. The question foremost in his mind was, Had he taken a lethal dose? He looked it up in a classic textbook that he himself had written years before. According to his own book he had had it. He checked another, written by an equally eminent professional. According to that one he had taken only about half the amount necessary to to do in someone of his body mass. So he sat down and waited, hoping he'd been wrong.
["Trump of Doom" of The Great Book of Amber by Roger Zelazny]
I'd like to know if "it" means "a lethal dose."
And I'd like to know why "of his body mess," not "for his body mess."
Thank you in advance for your help.
  

Top answer

" No. "have/has had it" is a set phrase. " park sang joon half the amount necessary to to [ do in ] [ someone of his body mass ] .

— Teechr

  • " No.
  • "have/has had it" is a set phrase.
  • " park sang joon half the amount necessary to to [ do in ] [ someone of his body mass ] .
  • someone of the same body mass.
  • q=do+someone+in
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1 Answers
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park sang joonI'd like to know if "it" means "a lethal dose."
No. "have/has had it" is a set phrase. Have a look at meaning #1.2 below:
http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/have-had-it?q=have+had+it
pa
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