According to John Sutherland in today's Guardian
http://www.guardian.co.uk/g2/story/0,3604,1159035,00.html>
I have to say that I don't think question two contains its own answer as there is no sign of a semi-colon (I have copied & pasted direct from the Guardian website - the article appears as it does in print)
And Q3 seems silly. 'In terms of sense' the two statements are pretty much indistinguishable unless more context is given. Imagine a news conference :
Policeman - The butler stole the necklace
Reporter - It was the butler who stole the necklace? Policeman - No, the butler stole the necklace
Reporter Why can't you say it was the butler who stole the necklace? Policeman - Apparently, it doesn't mean the same thing. Reporter - But the butler did it?
Policeman - Oh yes. No doubt there.
And the analogy 'Reading literature without knowing the parts of speech is like practising brain surgery with your fingers' sounds like the product of a fevered mind.
Analysing* literature might be difficult if you don't know the difference between a noun and a verb, but *reading* (and understanding) 'Animal Farm', 'Pride and Prejudice' or 'Howl' *can be done perfectly well without knowing the first thing about parts of speech. Difficult tending to impossible if English is learned as a foreign language, but hardly when you learn it as native speech. Shirley?
John Dean
Oxford