0
Stenka25 Posted 12 years ago
Vocabulary

Tense trouble

The passage below is from the website as follows:

http://www.epubbud.com/read.php?g=H8AVF5J5&tocp=7

The new African form, with its fancy tools, ochre paint and shell-bead ornaments, might have displaced its neighbours, but it would now settle down to enjoy its million years in the sun before gracefully giving way to something new. This time, however, some of the L3 people promptly spilled out of Africa and exploded into global dominion.

In this text I have a two question.
First, it seems to me there is a disagreement of tense between ‘might have displaced’ and ‘would settle.’ For me, it seems better to change the latter into ‘would have settled’ to agree with the former. What do you think of my line of thought?

Anyhow, regardless of whether the question is right or wrong, why did the author make such a ‘gap’ in the sense of tense?

Second, is it all right if the conjunction ‘but’ be replaced by ‘instead’?

Thanks in advance.
  

Top answer

’ They are not the same, but they refer to different times. 'Might have displaced' is an accomplished fact at that time; 'would now settle down' is current to that time, it is happening then. Stenka25 For me, it seems better to change the latter into ‘would have settled’ to agree with the former.

  • ’ They are not the same, but they refer to different times.
  • 'Might have displaced' is an accomplished fact at that time; 'would now settle down' is current to that time, it is happening then.
  • Stenka25 For me, it seems better to change the latter into ‘would have settled’ to agree with the former.
  • No, as I have explained: settling is not in that time's past, but happening then.
  • Stenka25 , why did the author make such a ‘gap’ in the sense of tense?
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

3 Answers
0
Stenka25 it seems to me there is a disagreement of tense between ‘might have displaced’ and ‘would settle.’
They are not the same, but they refer to different times. 'Might have displaced' is an accomplished fact at that time; 'would now settle down' is current to that time, it is happening then.
Stenka25 For me, it seems better to chan
0
Thanks for your immediate answer, Mister Micawber.

First I admit I’m wrong in the second question.
And I also admit there is no problem of the ‘tense gap’ in the sentence.

But I’m not sure about your opinion in the meaning of the 1st question.

Let me paraphrase the original text.

The new African form, with its fancy tools, ochre paint and shell-bead ornam
0
Stenka25In the first sentence the author gives the possibility of “the new African form displaced its neighbours,” and he also give another guessing after that replacement.
No. The writer is saying that the new form did displace its neighbours, and that it was now about to settle down to enjoy its million years. S/he is talking about what actually happe

Related Questions