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Park sang joon Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Tense Simplification

When former president Jimmy Carter lost his bid for a second term in 1980, he left behind a host of economic, political, and international problems for his successor to clean up. Had he gone the way of most ex-presidents, who usually spend their time playing golf or earning cash for speaking engagements,he might have been best remembered for his ineffectual administration. But Carter obviously decided not rest until he had qualified for sainthood.
[Source: Reading for Results Ninth Edition by Laraine Flemming]
I'd like to know why "had qualified" is used, not "has qualified" or "would have qualified."
Thank you in advance for your help.
  

Top answer

It should be "not to rest". "until he had qualified" is used because qualification happened before resting, and both are now in the past. It is the past version of "until he has qualified".

  • It should be "not to rest".
  • "until he had qualified" is used because qualification happened before resting, and both are now in the past.
  • It is the past version of "until he has qualified".
  • "until he would have qualified" is not good English; it would be the past version of "until he will have qualified", but we don't say that (may be related to other rules against using "will" with certain time expressions, even when they are talking about the future).
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3 Answers
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It should be "not to rest".

"until he had qualified" is used because qualification happened before resting, and both are now in the past. It is the past version of "until he has qualified".

"until he would have qualified" is not good English; it would be the past version of "until he will have qualified", but we don't say that (may be related to other rules against using "
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Thank you, GPY, for your very helpful answer.Emotion: smile
I think deciding is ahead of qualification.
And so I was wondering if the tens
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The timeline is:

decides ... qualifies ... rests

"had qualified" is relative to "rest" not "decided".

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