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Ezraman Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Technical/Grammatical Question

Hi --

I hope someone can help me with the following. I need a specific/technical/grammatical explanation for why the following sentence is not a sentence at all, but an incomplete fragment:

"It is clear that she spent more than $500, because she has admitted that the original price of the item at issue, and therefore the value of the sofa, which equals $1200."

I have cleaned up the sentence below. In particular, I deleted the word "which" in order to make it a complete sentence:

"It is clear that she spent more than $500 because she has admitted that the original price of the item at issue (and, therefore, the value of the sofa) equals $1200."

The writer meant to convey the idea 'we know she spent more than $500 because she admitted that the price of the sofa was $1200.' Instead, he conveyed 'we know she spent more than $500 because . . ." I can't get the writer to understand how deleting the word "which" changes the meaning of the sentence, i.e., completes the thought. I see this sort of thing all the time. The writer tells me that all the words are there: "she admitted" "500" "1200" and "price," that the meaning is obvious, and, therefore, the sentence is correct. So, now I'm turning to this forum for a technical answer.

I have never studied grammar, but I've tried to find an answer on the internet. Is the problem that the word "admitted" in this context requires a second complement? My understanding is that "because she has admitted that the original price of the item at issue" is a conjunctive clause (I'm not sure if it is a subordinate clause as well). The subject of the clause is "she," the verb is "has admitted," the object is "the original price," and the second complement is "equals $1200." Am I correct in my understanding? It seems to me that inserting the word "which" before "equals $1200" turns it into some kind of dependent clause, and stops it from being the second complement.

I hope this is not too convoluted a question, but I do need help from you grammar whizzes out there!
  

Top answer

It is clear that she spent more than $500, because she has admitted [ that the original price of the item at issue, and therefore the value of the sofa, which equals $1200. $1200') has no finite verb. equals $1200.

  • It is clear that she spent more than $500, because she has admitted [ that the original price of the item at issue, and therefore the value of the sofa, which equals $1200.
  • $1200') has no finite verb.
  • equals $1200.
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9 Answers
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It is clear that she spent more than $500, because she has admitted [that the original price of the item at issue, and therefore the value of the sofa, which equals $1200.]

It is simply that the imbedded 'that' clause ('that...$1200') has no finite verb. Removing 'which' permits 'equals' to become the finite verb: 'that...the price...equals $1200.
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Greetings, dear friends,

let me offer my take on the subject:

It is clear that she spent more than $500, because she has admitted that the original price of the item at issue, and therefore the value of the sofa, which equals $1200.

This is a complex sentence, consisting of the main clause:

It is clear that she spent more than $500,...

and
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Hi Mr. Micawber:

I'm going to embarrass myself here because I don't fully understand your answer. First, I did not know what a finite verb is. I went into google and found this definition "A form of a verb that shows agreement with a subject and is marked for tense." The explanation contrasted the term with nonfinite verb (e.g., gerund, infinitive). Okay, so I think I understand the
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Mr. Chebrikoff,


You've blown my mind. It will take me an hour to understand what you wrote (I really, really cannot believe how ignorant I am -- did I miss all of primary and secondary school????). I will repond when I understand!

Most appreciative,

Ezra
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Mr. Chebrikoff,

Okay, I now get most of this, but I still need to break some of it down into English (i.e., the English that we mere mortals speak!).

You wrote "That-clauses need to be finite. A finite clause is the one having a verb marked for tense or modality."

Can I re-phrase what you wrote as follows:

That-clauses need to be finite; in othe
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Greetings, dear friends,

ezramanThat-clauses need to be finite; in other words, that-clauses must have a verb that agrees with the subject of the that-clause. A that-clause that lacks a verb, by definition, is incomplete because there is no verb – it contains a subject, without any action. The subject in this particular that-clause is "the original price," but the
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Dear Mr. Chebrikoff,



Thank you for you quick response.



Can I take from what you have said that the which-clause needs its own finite verb that it cannot share with the that-claues? Is my explanation below correct?



"That-clauses need to be finite; in other words, that-clauses must have a verb that agrees with the subject of the that-c
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Greetings,

ezramanCan I take from what you have said that the which-clause needs its own finite verb that it cannot share with the that-claues? Is my explanation below correct?
"That-clauses need to be finite; in other words, that-clauses must have a verb that agrees with the subject of the that-clause. A that-clause that lacks a verb, by definition, is incom
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Thanks for all your help!!Emotion: wink

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