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Hans51 Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Take a photo of a man selling the food.

Take a photo of me selling the food.

In this sentence, me functions as a subject of the gerund, selling the food and my also can be put like my selling the food as a subject in meaning and then I was wondering if the sentence below a man functions the same as me or my or a man is an object of the preposition of and selling the food modifies a man and who is omitted between them?

Take a photo of a man selling the food.

Or both ways are possible and there is no meaning difference either way?

What do you native English speakers think? Thank you so much as usual in advance!
  

Top answer

Dear Hans To apply your rule you would say : (1) Take a photo of the man selling the food / (2) Take a photo of the man's selling of the food. You need "the" in both cases as we are identifying the man. You also need "of" in the second version.

  • Dear Hans To apply your rule you would say : (1) Take a photo of the man selling the food / (2) Take a photo of the man's selling of the food.
  • You need "the" in both cases as we are identifying the man.
  • You also need "of" in the second version.
  • We've effectively transformed "selling" from a present participle to a gerund.
  • In practice, we would not never say (2) because this is an informal situation.
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1 Answers
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Dear Hans

To apply your rule you would say :

(1) Take a photo of the man selling the food / (2) Take a photo of the man's selling of the food.

You need "the" in both cases as we are identifying the man.

You also need "of" in the second version. We've effectively transformed "selling" from a present participle to a gerund.

In practice, we would not neve

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