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GrandSpleen Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

"tables available" vs. "available tables"

Hi everybody!

I'm an English teacher and today I had a question that I found difficult to answer. Compare:

"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."

To me, both sound OK. The question is: if "available" is an adjective, why is it acceptable for the adjective to appear AFTER the noun (tables) in the first sentence?

Could anybody shed some light on the subject?
Thanks a lot for any help!!
GS
  

Top answer

Hi, Welcome to the Forum. " To me, both sound OK. The question is: if "available" is an adjective, why is it acceptable for the adjective to appear AFTER the noun (tables) in the first sentence?

  • Hi, Welcome to the Forum.
  • " To me, both sound OK.
  • The question is: if "available" is an adjective, why is it acceptable for the adjective to appear AFTER the noun (tables) in the first sentence?
  • Could anybody shed some light on the subject?
  • In modern English, 'before the noun' is the norm, but the older-English possible placement of 'after the noun' still survives in poetry, songs, rhetoric.
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12 Answers
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Hi,
Welcome to the Forum.
Compare:

"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."

To me, both sound OK. The question is: if "available" is an adjective, why is it acceptable for the adjective to appear AFTER the noun (tables) in the first sentence?

Could anybody shed some light on the subjec
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Thank you very much! Just the sort of answer I was hoping for.
-GS
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Clive So taunt me and hurt me,
Deceive me, desert me,
I assume you're imagining this with a tango beat!
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Story of my life.
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GrandSpleen"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."
I'd choose the first sentence.

I suppose I regard available at 7:00 as a more or less inseparable adjective phrase.

Adjectives are placed after nouns more often than you may realize, especially when additiona
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Louise bought two dresses suitable for evening wear.
Louise bought two suitable dresses for evening wear.
(???)

To me these don't mean the same, although one may argue that in specific cases they amount to the same..
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CalifJimLouise bought two dresses suitable for evening wear.
Louise bought two suitable dresses for evening wear.
(???)

We took a leisurely walk on grass wet with dew.
We took a leisurely walk on wet grass with dew.
(???)

I see your examples the same way.

I have a table available at 7:00.
I have an available table at
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GrandSpleen"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."
I agree with CJ - the adjective in this case has more affinity with the adverb phrase that modifies it, than to the noun it modifies. (available when? -answer: at 7:00).
Notice when there are more adjectives, they are placed b
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KooyeenThey had no tables available. (hmm, is this ok?)
Yes, because there is an implied adverb - "at that time" (in the past or future), and "now" in the present.
Sorry, Sir, you should have made reservations in advance. We have no tables available (now).
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AlpheccaStarsYes, because there is an implied adverb - "at that time" (in the past or future), and "now" in the present.
Sorry, Sir, you should have made reservations in advance. We have no tables available (now).
Hmm, yes, that makes sense. But... now I am officially confused! [:^)] Does it actually depend on an adverbial phrase (which might just b

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