Hi, Welcome to the Forum. " To me, both sound OK. The question is: if "available" is an adjective, why is it acceptable for the adjective to appear AFTER the noun (tables) in the first sentence?
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Clive So taunt me and hurt me,
Deceive me, desert me,
GrandSpleen"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."I'd choose the first sentence.
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."
CalifJimLouise bought two dresses suitable for evening wear.
Louise bought two suitable dresses for evening wear. (???)
We took a leisurely walk on grass wet with dew.
We took a leisurely walk on wet grass with dew. (???)
I see your examples the same way.
I have a table available at 7:00.
I have an available table at
GrandSpleen"I'm sorry, we don't have any tables available at 7:00."I agree with CJ - the adjective in this case has more affinity with the adverb phrase that modifies it, than to the noun it modifies. (available when? -answer: at 7:00).
"I'm sorry, we don't have any available tables at 7:00."
KooyeenThey had no tables available. (hmm, is this ok?)Yes, because there is an implied adverb - "at that time" (in the past or future), and "now" in the present.
AlpheccaStarsYes, because there is an implied adverb - "at that time" (in the past or future), and "now" in the present.Hmm, yes, that makes sense. But... now I am officially confused! [:^)] Does it actually depend on an adverbial phrase (which might just b
Sorry, Sir, you should have made reservations in advance. We have no tables available (now).