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SerraAvatar Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Subtle differences? "aims at" vs. "aims to"

Hello all you English enthusiasts, could someone give me some clarification between the differences of the phrases below? First time posting here, thank you in adnvace for taking this tread into consideration!

"the new law 'aims at' reducing crime rate"
v.s.
"the new law 'aims to' reduce crime rate"

What are the differences between these two forms? Which form is more appropriate under what situation?

Thanks:)
  

Top answer

g. ). g.

  • g.
  • ).
  • g.
  • " For me, "ultimately" has arrived.
  • I see nothing wrong with using the infinitive instead of at + gerund, nor do I detect any difference in meaning.
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8 Answers
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An old book of mine that deals with prepositional idioms and phrasal verbs says:

"The normal idiom is to aim at something (e.g. aim at a target, aim a blow at someone or something, aim a stone at the window, etc.). In strict British English the only part of a verb that can follow aim is the gerund (aim at doing something) but over the past few years the infinitive h
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If there is any difference at all, it is that 'aim to' still retains a whiff of pioneer American English ('Ah aims ta marry thet li'l gal, come **** er high water!"; hence it may be a bit more casual.
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Hello,
I just saw your site and thought that you might help me. Is the verb "aim" used with "that"? Or could it be at least tried when there is no other option? For example:

The campaign aims that the water resources are protected and developed.

An answer would be much appreciated.

Jack Hamann
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No, Jack, you cannot do that in standard English.
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I have always found the collocation AIM AT +ing in dictionaries and grammar texts . It seems to me that colloquial English has allowed the use of TO inf in a lot of collocations that did not use to be framed like that. My theory is that the coming of other languages in co-existance with English interferes in the use of the latter and regular use customises language. Then it spreads quickly thanks
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Both are fine. It's the use of the prepositions that changes the forms from infinitive to gerund. Do I make any sense to you?
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SerraAvatar"the new law 'aims at' reducing crime rate" v.s."the new law 'aims to' reduce crime rate"
Just to make a small addition to what has already been said, I'd like to say that to my ear, the form with "to reduce" makes the statement sound more confident of success than the "at reducing" form. My impression about this may be idiosyncratic.

CJ
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To add to what has already been said:

Aim can generally be used in three forms:
1. Aim to : This form is specifically and colloquially used to express an intention to achieve, a purpose to achieve. Also to add to it, this usage is employed when aim is used as an intransitive verb, i.e. no direct object. Correct construction is Aim to + verb (infinitive is the complement of the verb).

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