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Guzhao67 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Subjunctive mood in kjv bible

Hi:

in the following sentence quoted from the kjv bible, why does the translation use subjunctive mood in the if clause, while indicative in the main clause? Thank you

If I be bereaved [of my children,] I am bereaved. Genesis {43:14}
  

Top answer

Hello Guzhao67, There really isn't an answer to your question. Use of the subjunctive has changed since the King James version of the bible first appeared in 1611. Since the bible is a work of man, perhaps it was just an error on the part of the translator?

— JohnParis

  • Hello Guzhao67, There really isn't an answer to your question.
  • Use of the subjunctive has changed since the King James version of the bible first appeared in 1611.
  • Since the bible is a work of man, perhaps it was just an error on the part of the translator?
  • Regards, John
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2 Answers
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Hello Guzhao67,

There really isn't an answer to your question.

Use of the subjunctive has changed since the King James version of the bible first appeared in 1611.

Since the bible is a work of man, perhaps it was just an error on the part of the translator?

Regards,

John
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guzhao67Hi:
in the following sentence quoted from the kjv bible, why does the translation use subjunctive mood in the if clause, while indicative in the main clause? Thank you

If I be bereaved [of my children,] I am bereaved. Genesis {43:14}
For the very reason that the clause begins with if. This usage is no longer very common but it
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