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Paris zhao Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Subjunctive Mood (1)

Hi: I have a question about the difference between indicative mood and subjunctive. As far as the verb form is concerned, is the sentence "If I died, he wouldn't cry" a statement of fact, or just an imagination of the speaker?
  

Top answer

Hello, paris—and welcome to English Forums. - This is a statement of future possibility. It is the speaker's opinion.

  • Hello, paris—and welcome to English Forums.
  • - This is a statement of future possibility.
  • It is the speaker's opinion.
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26 Answers
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Hello, paris—and welcome to English Forums.

If I died, he wouldn't cry.- This is a statement of future possibility. It is the speaker's opinion.
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Hi there,thanks for the answer. But is it possible that the "died" might be the past form of subjunctive mood? As the equivalent expresstion of "if i were dead, he would'nt cry"
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No. The past form of conditional (which does not always involved subjunctive) is 'If I had died, he wouldn't have cried.'
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Hi, Mister Micawber, thank you for the reply. Excuse me if I'm too demanding. Can we conclude this way: "If i died, he wouldn't cry" could be a statement of futur possiblity, in this case, "died" indicates subjunctive mood. (contrary to present fact) And the same sentence could also be a statement of the fact existed once in some past time. As if we can say "if I die, he will not cry", we should
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If I died, he wouldn't cry.

This can refer only to a future hypothetical event - 'I' am alive at the moment of making that utterance. When the verb BE is used in such sentences, as in If I were dead, he wouldn't cry, context will tell us if the speaker is referring to a present or future situation. Careful speakers use the subjunctive form were for all persons
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fivejedjonSome people like to claim that the form used for all verbs is the past subjunctive, but, as this form is identical to the past indicative for all verbs except BE. I see little point in this.
How do you feel about this statement?

Some people like to claim that all verbs have past participles, but, as this form is identical to the simple past
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CalifJimHow do you feel about this statement?Some people like to claim that all verbs have past participles, but, as this form is identical to the simple past for all verbs except about 100 irregular verbs, which is the vast minority of all verbs, I see little point in this.CJ
That is a totally different situation. The relatively small number of English verbs
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Welcome back, 5jj. I see you are well rested.
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Mister MicawberWelcome back, 5jj
Thanks. It's good to be back.
Mister Micawber I see you are well rested.
Rested enough to gallop off on one of my hobby horses.
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Thank you, fivejedjon. In fact. a few days ago, I read a passage in Otto Jesperson's Growth and structure of the English language, (page 206, section 205) in which one reads:
"While the number of tenses has been increased, the number of moods has tended to diminish, the subjunctive having now very little vital power left. Most of its forms have become indistinguishable from those of t

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