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Debpriya De Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Subjunctive

1. If I were the king, I would ban poaching.

2. If I won the match, I would throw a party.

"were" in the first sentence is called a subjunctive. But, why is "won" not called a subjunctive, even though its role in the sentence is identical to that of "were" in the first sentence ?
  

Top answer

It is subjunctive mood. For verbs other than be, the simple past form subjunctive mood is the same as the indicative mood. html

  • It is subjunctive mood.
  • For verbs other than be, the simple past form subjunctive mood is the same as the indicative mood.
  • html
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4 Answers
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It is subjunctive mood.

For verbs other than be, the simple past form subjunctive mood is the same as the indicative mood.

Here is a reference: http://www.wordpower.ws/grammar/gramch09.html
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Debpriya Dewhy is "won" not called a subjunctive
On the contrary, it is called a subjunctive.

Any time you have something that looks like a past tense in an if-clause accompanied by another clause with would or could, that past tense is considered subjunctive.

CJ
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Thanks for your answers,

But, what about the "would" in the main clause in "If I won the match, I would throw a party."

Is it past subjunctive too ?
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Debpriya Dewhat about the "would" in the main clause ... Is it past subjunctive too ?
No! Only the verb in the if-clause qualifies as 'subjunctive'. In traditional grammar, some grammarians used to say that a clause with would was in 'conditional mood' (because it usually had a condition attached to it), but I believe that terminology is dying

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