Which of these sentences has a wrong verb subject agreement?
1) I will have the boy change the costume.
2) I will have the boy changes the costume
I think sentence 1) is correct. It looks like an instance of the use of subjunctive. It can be paraphrased as "I wiil demand that the boy change the costume".
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
I think sentence 1) is correct. It looks like an instance of the use of subjunctive. It can be paraphrased as "I wiil demand that the boy change the costume".
mjobimjobI1Which of these sentences has a wrong verb subject agreement?
Which do you think is the wrong one?
I am not sure which one is right. I just wanted to know. I thought that if "boy" is the subject of the verb "change", then change must take an S. Therefore, I assumed that the second sentence is right.
If you know the rule that indicates the first sentence is right, please send me a reference.
Thanks!
I am sorry for not giving a clear answer. I really do not know what is the name of this rule. I know that this “(have) (someone) (do) (something) is a standard expression. The second verb is always “an infinitive without to”. You may google “have (someone) (do something)” and there are a lot of examples. The ordinary subject-verb agreement rule does not apply here. You have to, as it were, jus
The causative verbs, let, have, and make have this pattern.
I will have the boy change the costume.
I will make the boy change the costume.
I will let the boy change the costume.
Other verbs use the to-infinitive:
I will force the boy to change the costume.
I will allow the boy to change the costume.
I will permit the boy to change the costume.
I wil