This is from "A Student's Introduction to English Grammar" by R. Huddleston and G. Pullum (p.255):
"Non-dislocated clause
[42] ii a. I think the man next door's car was stolen.
Dislocated clause
[42] ii b. The man next door's, I think his car was stolen.
Left dislocation may put a complex NP early in the sentence, replacing it with a pronoun in the nucleus [a main part of the clause, consisting of subject and predicate], so the nucleus is structurally simpler. (Note that in [42iib] the subject-determiner in the dislocated version is simply his, whereas in [42iia] it is more complex genitive the man next door's).
My questions are:
Why is the genitive the man next door's the subject (called subject-determiner here) in the subordinate clause of the sentence I think the man next door's car was stolen instead of the ordinary subject, an NP, i.e. the man next door's car?
Why is the determiner his the subject (called subject-determiner here) in the subordinate clause of the sentence The man next door's, I think his car was stolen instead of the ordinary subject, an NP, i.e. his car?
anonymous subject-determiner ~ the determiner associated with the subject of a clause (not the subject itself) Possessive phrases are one type of determiner. I believe you may have misunderstood this. anonymous Why is the genitive the man next door's the subject ...?
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anonymoussubject-determiner
~ the determiner associated with the subject of a clause
(not the subject itself)
Possessive phrases are one type of determiner.
I believe you may have misunderstood this.
anonymousWhy is the genitive the man next door's the subject ...?
It's not. It's a (posses