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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
sub verb agreement
Some of the grains have gone bad.
Some of the grain has gone bad.
My questions is that Why have is used in the first sentence and has is the second?? if my answers are not wrong
Some of the grain has gone bad.
My questions is that Why have is used in the first sentence and has is the second?? if my answers are not wrong
Top answer
Generally, grain is used as a collective noun (non-countable). So, you want some of the grain has gone bad. It can also be used as a literal singular: "That isn't worth a grain of salt".
- Generally, grain is used as a collective noun (non-countable).
- So, you want some of the grain has gone bad.
- It can also be used as a literal singular: "That isn't worth a grain of salt".
- "
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1 Answers
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Generally, grain is used as a collective noun (non-countable). So, you want some of the grain has gone bad. It can also be used as a literal singular: "That isn't worth a grain of salt". It can also be used in the plural: "There are seven different grains used to make that bread."
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