Sinbadsunny reading a book well. That is not native semantics, but your use of the two phrases is fine, Sinbadsunny.
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Sinbadsunny reading a book well.That is not native semantics, but your use of the two phrases is fine, Sinbadsunny.
Sinbadsunnysth to be done / sth to doIf they modify a noun that can be construed as the object of the modifying infinitive, then yes. In that case the active infinitive (to do) is usually preferred to the passive infinitive (to be done) even thoughDoesDo the two patterns express the same meaning?
CalifJimNote the relationships below.things to do (things to be done) (to do t
Reegiswhat relationshipJust the general relationships between active and passive infinitives and the corresponding verb and its object.
Reegis1a) I have a lot of work to do.1b) I have a lot of work to be done.Would you agree that their meaning is slightly different? Namely, does 1a) mean that the work has to be done by me, while in 1b)
CalifJima careful writer would not use it.Well, there are many things in English that I need to learn yet, but I like to do my best and to write carefully, so I will not use it:)
CalifJimTrue, because "there" can't serve as the agent of the doing.Can a careful writer use either of them?
ReegisCan a careful writer use either of them?Yes, but the active infinitive is the one that is almost always chosen.