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Pleasehelp Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Stay

Did you stay up all night in preparation for your study?

How come in this sentence instead of stayed we use stay, the reason I ask is because the sentence begins with a past tense verb (did)? Is it because of the modal rule(do/did) so stay is in its base form?
  

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pleasehelp Did you stay up all night in preparation for your study? How come in this sentence instead of stayed we use stay, the reason I ask is because the sentence begins with a past tense verb (did )? Is it because of the modal rule(do/did) so stay is in its base form?

  • pleasehelp Did you stay up all night in preparation for your study?
  • How come in this sentence instead of stayed we use stay, the reason I ask is because the sentence begins with a past tense verb (did )?
  • Is it because of the modal rule(do/did) so stay is in its base form?
  • I would like to know what the modal rule is if somebody would go into it.
  • Here I think it is the fact that you are asking a question.
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8 Answers
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pleasehelpDid you stay up all night in preparation for your study?

How come in this sentence instead of stayed we use stay, the reason I ask is because the sentence begins with a past tense verb (did)? Is it because of the modal rule(do/did) so stay is in its base form?



I wou
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jemaasjr is right about the question.
In US grammar school, we used to run through the tenses:
present tense - I stay, do stay, am staying.

We rarely use "I do stay" in this exact form, but it's absolutely essential for questions and negative statements.
Do you often stay up late?
Don't stay up too late!

past tense - I stayed, did
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pleasehelpIs it because of the modal rule(do/did) so stay is in its base form?
Yes, that's the general idea, although the verb do (do, does, did) is not considered a modal, but an auxiliary verb.

When a form of do co-occurs with another verb for which it is the auxiliary, the other verb is always in the base form. This typically
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May I know the gist of "the modal rule (do/did)" ??

And when is it correct to use the term "bare infinitive," and when is it correct to use the term "base form" ??
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AvangiMay I know the gist of "the modal rule (do/did)"
An infinitive without to goes after a modal verb: can do, would see, should know, may decide, ... Neither the modal nor the following verb is inflected. This rule does not include do, which is inflected.
AvangiAnd when is it correct to use the term "bare inf
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Thanks. I follow you>[bah]

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