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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

stand/stands

insist that he stand or insist that he stands?
  

Top answer

The first is more rigorously correct. The second is also in use but may be considered incorrect by some listeners.

  • The first is more rigorously correct.
  • The second is also in use but may be considered incorrect by some listeners.
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8 Answers
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The first is more rigorously correct. The second is also in use but may be considered incorrect by some listeners.
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Hi,

I'd go with the first one: insist that he stand. In your case, stand should be used in the subjunctive.

Likewise: I insist that she see a doctor. She insists that David be present at the meeting.

Note that the verb in the that-clause is the bare form of the infinitive.

If you don't use the subjunctive mood where it is req
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Mandative subjunctive. So far we have examined three different ways of issuing directives – modals, semi-auxiliaries, and the imperative.The subjunctive can also be used as a directive. The term mandative derives from the Latin root for mandate, “a command or order”. The mandative subjunctive is a very distinct kind of directive and it always takes
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Hi,
Mister MicawberThe second is also in use but may be considered incorrect by some listeners.
Cool BreezeWe insist that Marsha tells the truth or by a modal auxiliary – We insist that Marsha must tell the truth. Technically, however, these are not subjunctive utterances because they lack subjunctive verb forms.
1. I
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Mister MicawberThe first is more rigorously correct. The second is also in use but may be considered incorrect by some listeners.
This is the case with American English. In British English, a few of us still use the present subjunctive, but we are a small minority. Most people do not even know of its existence, and very few would consider the use of the indica
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RegardsI assume those words in red just ought to prove me wrong
I'm not trying to prove anyobody right or wrong. Grammatical correctness is a relative thing. People think differently about countless aspects of grammar. I just quoted the opinion of one liberal grammarian.

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Cool BreezeThe same meaning can be communicated by a verb in present tense
From the viewpoint of American English I can't say I agree with Mr. Berk in the general case. Yes, the same meaning can be communicated, but from that information we shouldn't draw the conclusion that the same meaning is always communicated. I see a very big difference b
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Hi,
CalifJimI see a very big difference between these.
And so do I. Good examples.

Regards

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