Splitting the noun phrase by the verb
"The prime minister signalled on Thursday that MPs would be given a vote in 2020, when the UK would have to decide between entering the backstop, or extending the transition period, if no permanent agreement had been reached that avoids the need for a hard border."
(The Guardian.)
Is it grammatical to split the noun phrase the way it is done in the if-clause if no permanent agreement had been reached that avoids the need for a hard border?
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I understand that the noun phrase (a subject) no permanent agreement that avoids the need for a hard border is split by the verb had been reached in that clause.
Top answer
tkacka15 if no permanent agreement had been reached that avoids the need for a hard border Yes, it's grammatical. It's a matter of moving the long relative clause to the end so as not to delay the verb phrase. That way you have the main parts of the sentence (subject and verb) stated immediately and details about the subject given later.
- tkacka15 if no permanent agreement had been reached that avoids the need for a hard border Yes, it's grammatical.
- It's a matter of moving the long relative clause to the end so as not to delay the verb phrase.
- That way you have the main parts of the sentence (subject and verb) stated immediately and details about the subject given later.
- This is not usually done unless the relative clause is so long that it impedes comprehension if not moved.
- CJ
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tkacka15if no permanent agreement had been reached that avoids the need for a hard border
Yes, it's grammatical. It's a matter of moving the long relative clause to the end so as not to delay the verb phrase. That way you have the main parts of the sentence (subject and verb) stated immediately and details about the subject given later. This is not usual
0tkacka15Is it grammatical
Why would you doubt it? The article would have been written by a competent journalist and checked by a copy editor, so it's highly unlikely that they would make a serious grammatical gaff.
0
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