Spelling errors vs grammatical errors

Question

What constitutes a spelling error versus a grammatical error? More specifically, would misuse of a homonym fall under the realm of spelling or grammar?

I hate to ask for such an inconsequential distinction as in my mind, errors are simply errrors, but it is relavent to a change in grade.

Thank you for your help!

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

Anonymouserrrors

This is an example of a spelling error.

Anonymousrelavent

This is another example of a spelling error.

Hmm. I'm beginning to wonder whether you deserve a change in grade.

Misuse of a homonym would most likely be a spelling error, though I suppose if I thought hard and long enough I could find a misuse that was a grammar error. Without knowing the exact sort of misuse you're talking about I can only guess it's a spelling mistake, as in mountain peek or peace of pie or one, too, three, or they're are no beats for sail today, or eye am tide up today; eye mussed sea the I doctor, so eye cant meat ewe at ate as planned.

On the other hand, its for it's (or the reverse) might be considered a grammar error, as would any misuse of apostrophes.

CJ

Spelling errors vs grammatical errors

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