Son, your sins are forgiven YOU.
With reference to the following biblical verses, I understand they were written in archaic language. However I wonder how the grammar rules are applied to the underlined words especially those in bold.
Mark : 2 : 5 - Then, when Jesus had seen their faith, he said to the paralytic, 'Son, your sins are forgiven you.' Does the underlined mean "your sins are forgiven OF/FROM you"?
Mark : 3 : 28 - Amen I say to you, that all sins will be forgiven the sons of men, and the blasphemies by which they will have blasphemed. Does the underlined mean "all sins will be forgiven BY the sons of men"?
Mark : 4 : 12 - so that, seeing, they may see, and not perceive; and hearing, they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they may be converted, and their sins would be forgiven them. Does the underlined mean "their sins would be forgiven OF/FROM them"?
Top answer
The grammar is obsolete. The words in bold are in the dative case, which we do not use now, at least not knowingly. " That "me" is like your bold words.
- The grammar is obsolete.
- The words in bold are in the dative case, which we do not use now, at least not knowingly.
- " That "me" is like your bold words.
- " The import of that "to" we now use is included in the old case.
- You could twist it into "By you a sandwich was given me", and that is where it falls apart.
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The grammar is obsolete. The words in bold are in the dative case, which we do not use now, at least not knowingly. Think of it like "You gave me a sandwich." That "me" is like your bold words. There is no "to" missing, but you can add one if you like : "You gave a sandwich to me." The import of that "to" we now use is included in the old case.
You could twist it into "By you a sandwich
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