Something for John to do

Question

1-There is something for John to do.2-I have something for John to do.Do these mean:a-that John can do that thing (John is bored. I have something for him to do).b-that I want John to do something.c-that there is something John has to do.Gratefully,Navi.

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

navitasan1-There is something for John to do.2-I have something for John to do.

The first one doesn't strike me as completely idiomatic unless it's said with the stress on There's after a suggestion is made about what John might do, as in this version.

-- John is looking for something to do.
-- How about if he paints the kitchen?
-- That's it! There's something for John to do.

This is, more or less, your meaning a. It's not meaning b or c.
___________

The second one (I have something ...) can mean a, in the sense of keeping John (who is bored) occupied. It can also mean b. I don't see it as meaning c. He wouldn't necessarily have to do it just because you said you had it for him to do.

CJ

Navitasan · Answer

Thank you very much CalifJim,

Instead of 1, one could consider:

3-Is there anything for me to do?

I think this could again have meaning "a": I am bored. Is there anything for me to do?
and I believe it could be used in case "b".
As you see we are working hard here.
Is there anything for me to do?

I don't think it could be used to mean: "Is there anythng I have to do."

Gratefully,
Navi.

CalifJim · Answer

navitasanInstead of 1, one could consider:3-Is there anything for me to do?I think this could again have meaning "a": I am bored. Is there anything for me to do?and I believe it could be used in case "b".As you see we are working hard here.Is there anything for me to do?I don't think it could be used to mean: "Is there anythng I have to do."

You are right on all counts.

CJ

Something for John to do

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