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Johnson13 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

somebody's ears are burning

When we say somebody's ears are burning, it means a person thinks that other people are talking about them, especially in an unkind way.

eg from a dictionary: ‘I bumped into your ex-wife last night.’ ‘I thought I could feel my ears burning!’

In the conversation, the speaker uses THOUGHT, the past tense, obviously referring to a past event, but how does it related to the present? Why does he use THOUGHT instead of THINK?
  

Top answer

Johnson13 Why does he use THOUGHT instead of THINK? Because the second speaker had this thought at the time of the (past) meeting. It was at that meeting that the first speaker and the second-speaker's ex were talking about the second speaker.

  • Johnson13 Why does he use THOUGHT instead of THINK?
  • Because the second speaker had this thought at the time of the (past) meeting.
  • It was at that meeting that the first speaker and the second-speaker's ex were talking about the second speaker.
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10 Answers
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Johnson13Why does he use THOUGHT instead of THINK?
Because the second speaker had this thought at the time of the (past) meeting. It was at that meeting that the first speaker and the second-speaker's ex were talking about the second speaker.
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Thanks. But this is still unintelligible to me.

The first speaker says he bumped into the ex of the second speaker; then why is there the phrase I THOUGHT?
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I assume you realise that this is a dialogue?

A: ‘I bumped into your ex-wife last night.’
B: ‘I thought I could feel my ears burning!’
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Johnson13The first speaker says he bumped into the ex of the second speaker; then why is there the phrase I THOUGHT?
I think because that action - I mean thinking- happened at the time he met his ex-wife in the past, to be exact, he came up with that thought in the past, if he only thought of it at the time speaking of this statement, not before, he would use
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Sica at the time he met his ex-wife in the past,
The first speaker did not meet his ex-wife. he met the second speaker's ex-wife.
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Thanks.

Yes, I know it's a dialogue, but now it is not so much a problem of grammar as of logic.

The first speaker says he saw the second speaker's ex-wife, then why doesn't the second speaker simply say 'I feel my ears burning'?
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Last night Speaker 1 met Speaker 2's ex-wife. They talked about Speaker 2, and as they did so Speaker 2 (supposedly) felt his ears burning.
Today Speaker 1 meets Speaker 2 and tells him of the meeting the previous night. Speaker 2 says that now he knows why his ears were burning the previous evening.
His ears are not burning now because his ex-wife is not talking about him now.
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I have a different understanding of how this phrase is used..

eg
Tom tells Mary some gossip about Fred, who is not present. Mary may say 'I bet Fred's ears are burning'.
She means that Fred would be shocked and embarrassed if he knew that the
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I have encountered both usages.
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CliveI have a different understanding of how this phrase is used..eg Tom tells Mary some gossip about Fred, who is not present. Mary may say 'I bet Fred's ears are burning'.She means that Fred would be shocked and embarrassed if he knew that they were gossiping about him.But nowhere does Fred himself suddenly say 'My ears are burning'. Clive
No, but if Mary te

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