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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

"so that he has to" vs. "so that he have to"

Hi,

Coming from Spanish I have a lot of doubts about subjunctive in English... mostly because normally I do not see or hear it around me...

My doubt come in expressions like this:

"bla bla bla so that he have to" vs "bla bla bla so that he has to"

To me, the correct one is the first one, as it is a subjunctive (In Spanish, "para que tenga que", no "para que tiene que")... but my problem is that, at least in the US, I do not see expressions like that...

More extreme would be if we use the verb "to be"...

"bla bla bla so that he be somebody" vs "bla bla bla so that he is somebody" (In Spanish, "para que sea alguien").

I have never ever heard "he be" here in the US, but, my Spanish logic tends to tell me that that is the correct way of saying it...

Could somebody put some light in this subjunctive issue for me?

Thanks!

Kind regards,
Hipo
  

Top answer

While many languages have the subjunctive mood, it seems that no two languages use it in the same circumstances or in exactly the same way. If you've studied French, for example, you know that French does not use its subjunctive tense in the same circumstances where Spanish uses its subjunctive tenses. The same is true for English.

  • While many languages have the subjunctive mood, it seems that no two languages use it in the same circumstances or in exactly the same way.
  • If you've studied French, for example, you know that French does not use its subjunctive tense in the same circumstances where Spanish uses its subjunctive tenses.
  • The same is true for English.
  • We don't use the subjunctive in when clauses, for example.
  • French and Italian do not use the subjunctive in the when clauses either, so your French and Italian -- as well as your English -- would seem strange if you tried to translate Cuando llegue ...
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4 Answers
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While many languages have the subjunctive mood, it seems that no two languages use it in the same circumstances or in exactly the same way. If you've studied French, for example, you know that French does not use its subjunctive tense in the same circumstances where Spanish uses its subjunctive tenses. The same is true for English. We don't use the subjunctive in when clauses, for examp
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Hi,

Thank you very much for your answer Cj.

I am from Galicia where we normally use the subjunctive even more than regular Spaniards... so you can imagine
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Hipo,

There's definitely something wrong with those Google numbers. I did the same searches, and in spite of what the numbers on top of the first page say, the true count is not as you have reported it.

If you keep paging through the "so that he have" results, you'll find only a few pages (3 or 4). There were only 28 hits and a very great number of them were written by non-nat
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After “so that” use may plus the infinitive:

... so that he may have...

this is the correct way to use “so that”.

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